New CISSP PDF and CISSP VCE Dumps

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Some new CISSP Exam Questions:

New Question
When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?

A. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager
B. When it has been validated by the board of directors
C. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios
D. When it has been validated by realistic exercises

Answer: D

New Question
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

A. Hardware and software compatibility issues
B. Applications' critically and downtime tolerance
C. Budget constraints and requirements
D. Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

A. Determine the cause of the incident
B. Disconnect the system involved from the network
C. Isolate and contain the system involved
D. Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident

Answer: D

New Question
A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

A. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies
B. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
C. Encompassing people, process, and technology
D. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

Answer: B

New Question
What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization's systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?

A. Warm site
B. Hot site
C. Mirror site
D. Cold site

Answer: A

New Question
Who is accountable for the information within an Information System (IS)?

A. Security manager
B. System owner
C. Data owner
D. Data processor

Answer: B

New Question
It is MOST important to perform which of the following to minimize potential impact when implementing a new vulnerability scanning tool in a production environment?

A. Negotiate schedule with the Information Technology (IT) operation's team
B. Log vulnerability summary reports to a secured server
C. Enable scanning during off-peak hours
D. Establish access for Information Technology (IT) management

Answer: A

New Question
A Security Operations Center (SOC) receives an incident response notification on a server with an active intruder who has planted a backdoor. Initial notifications are sent and communications are established.
What MUST be considered or evaluated before performing the next step?

A. Notifying law enforcement is crucial before hashing the contents of the server hard drive
B. Identifying who executed the incident is more important than how the incident happened
C. Removing the server from the network may prevent catching the intruder
D. Copying the contents of the hard drive to another storage device may damage the evidence

Answer: C

New Question
Due to system constraints, a group of system administrators must share a high-level access set of credentials.
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate to implement?

A. Increased console lockout times for failed logon attempts
B. Reduce the group in size
C. A credential check-out process for a per-use basis
D. Full logging on affected systems

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST efficient mechanism to account for all staff during a speedy non- emergency evacuation from a large security facility?

A. Large mantrap where groups of individuals leaving are identified using facial recognition technology
B. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) sensors worn by each employee scanned by sensors at each exit door
C. Emergency exits with push bars with coordinates at each exit checking off the individual against a predefined list
D. Card-activated turnstile where individuals are validated upon exit

Answer: B

New Question
What does electronic vaulting accomplish?

A. It protects critical files.
B. It ensures the fault tolerance of Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) systems
C. It stripes all database records
D. It automates the Disaster Recovery Process (DRP)

Answer: A

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November/2019 some braidump2go new CISSP Exam Questions,

New Question
In a High Availability (HA) environment, what is the PRIMARY goal of working with a virtual router address as the gateway to a network?

A. The second of two routers can periodically check in to make sure that the first router is operational.
B. The second of two routers can better absorb a Denial of Service (DoS) attack knowing the first router is present.
C. The first of two routers fails and is reinstalled, while the second handles the traffic flawlessly.
D. The first of two routers can better handle specific traffic, while the second handles the rest of the traffic seamlessly.

Answer: C

New Question
How does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in transport mode affect in the Internet Protocol (IP)?

A. Authenticates the IP payload and selected portions of the IP header
B. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the complete IP packet
C. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP header, but not the IP payload
D. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP payload, but not the IP header

Answer: D

New Question
A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack targeting its web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat?

A. Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers
B. Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic
C. Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection
D. Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Answer: D

New Question
The MAIN use of Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is to tunnel data

A. through a firewall at the Session layer
B. through a firewall at the Transport layer
C. in the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
D. in the Payload Compression Protocol (PCP)

Answer: C

New Question
What protocol is often used between gateway hosts on the Internet?

A. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

A. The department should report to the business owner
B. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
C. Individual accountability should be ensured
D. All members should be trained on their responsibilities

Answer: B

New Question
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

A. Assigned security label
B. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
C. Minimum query size
D. Passage of time

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

Answer: C

New Question
An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests. Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B. Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
C. Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer: B

New Question
When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

A. The process will require too many resources
B. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software
C. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data
D. The process will be perceived as having value

Answer: A

New Question
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

A. system security managers
B. business managers
C. Information Technology (IT) managers
D. end users

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

A. Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations
B. Understand the value of the information assets
C. Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management
D. Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

Answer: B

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More,

New Question
Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

A. Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
B. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication
C. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection
D. Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

Answer: C

New Question
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.
Which of the following BEST describes the access control methodology used?

A. Least privilege
B. Lattice Based Access Control (LBAC)
C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Lightweight Directory Access Control (LDAP)

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?

A. System and data resources are properly identified
B. Access violations are logged and audited
C. Data file references are identified and linked
D. System security controls are fully integrated

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following describes the BEST configuration management practice?

A. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to a separate back-up system and hashed to detect tampering.
B. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to an air-gapped system and hashed to detect tampering.
C. The firewall rules are backed up to an air-gapped system.
D. A baseline configuration is created and maintained for all relevant systems.

Answer: D

New Question
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access.
This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging.
The organization's Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following methods is the MOST effective way of removing the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from the computer?

A. Run software uninstall
B. Re-image the computer
C. Find and remove all installation files
D. Delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern when using an Internet browser to access a cloud-based service?

A. Insecure implementation of Application Programming Interfaces (API)
B. Improper use and storage of management keys
C. Misconfiguration of infrastructure allowing for unauthorized access
D. Vulnerabilities within protocols that can expose confidential data

Answer: D

New Question
The application of which of the following standards would BEST reduce the potential for data breaches?

A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 20121
C. ISO 26000
D. ISO 27001

Answer: D

New Question
What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

A. SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
B. SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.
C. SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.
D. SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

Answer: A

New Question
How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) identify a potential attack?

A. Examines log messages or other indications on the system.
B. Monitors alarms sent to the system administrator
C. Matches traffic patterns to virus signature files
D. Examines the Access Control List (ACL)

Answer: C

New Question
From a cryptographic perspective, the service of non-repudiation includes which of the following features?

A. Validity of digital certificates
B. Validity of the authorization rules
C. Proof of authenticity of the message
D. Proof of integrity of the message

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least privilege?

A. Access to an object is denied unless access is specifically allowed.
B. Access to an object is only available to the owner.
C. Access to an object is allowed unless it is protected by the information security policy.
D. Access to an object is only allowed to authenticated users via an Access Control List (ACL).

Answer: A

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December/2019 some new braindump2go CISSP Exam Questions,

New Question
Which of the following is a document that identifies each item seized in an investigation, including date and time seized, full name and signature or initials of the person who seized the item, and a detailed description of the item?

A. Property book
B. Chain of custody form
C. Search warrant return
D. Evidence tag

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following is needed to securely distribute symmetric cryptographic keys?

A. Officially approved Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI) Class 3 or Class 4 certificates
B. Officially approved and compliant key management technology and processes
C. An organizationally approved communication protection policy and key management plan
D. Hardware tokens that protect the user's private key.

Answer: C

New Question
Reciprocal backup site agreements are considered to be

A. a better alternative than the use of warm sites.
B. difficult to test for complex systems.
C. easy to implement for similar types of organizations.
D. easy to test and implement for complex systems.

Answer: B

New Question
In which identity management process is the subject's identity established?

A. Trust
B. Provisioning
C. Authorization
D. Enrollment

Answer: D

New Question
In order to assure authenticity, which of the following are required?

A. Confidentiality and authentication
B. Confidentiality and integrity
C. Authentication and non-repudiation
D. Integrity and non-repudiation

Answer: D

New Question
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model are the source and destination address for a datagram handled?

A. Transport Layer
B. Data-Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer

Answer: C

New Question
An organization regularly conducts its own penetration tests. Which of the following scenarios MUST be covered for the test to be effective?

A. Third-party vendor with access to the system
B. System administrator access compromised
C. Internal attacker with access to the system
D. Internal user accidentally accessing data

Answer: C

New Question
A company was ranked as high in the following National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) functions: Protect, Detect, Respond and Recover. However, a low maturity grade was attributed to the Identify function. In which of the following the controls categories does this company need to improve when analyzing its processes individually?

A. Asset Management, Business Environment, Governance and Risk Assessment
B. Access Control, Awareness and Training, Data Security and Maintenance
C. Anomalies and Events, Security Continuous Monitoring and Detection Processes
D. Recovery Planning, Improvements and Communications

Answer: A

New Question
What is the difference between media marking and media labeling?

A. Media marking refers to the use of human-readable security attributes, while media labeling refers to the use of security attributes in internal data structures.
B. Media labeling refers to the use of human-readable security attributes, while media marking refers to the use of security attributes in internal data structures.
C. Media labeling refers to security attributes required by public policy/law, while media marking refers to security required by internal organizational policy.
D. Media marking refers to security attributes required by public policy/law, while media labeling refers to security attributes required by internal organizational policy.

Answer: D

New Question
What balance MUST be considered when web application developers determine how informative application error messages should be constructed?

A. Risk versus benefit
B. Availability versus auditability
C. Confidentiality versus integrity
D. Performance versus user satisfaction

Answer: A

New Question
What operations role is responsible for protecting the enterprise from corrupt or contaminated media?

A. Information security practitioner
B. Information librarian
C. Computer operator
D. Network administrator

Answer: B

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New Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)?

A. It must be known to both sender and receiver.
B. It can be transmitted in the clear as a random number.
C. It must be retained until the last block is transmitted.
D. It can be used to encrypt and decrypt information.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is a remote access protocol that uses a static authentication?

A. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
B. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
C. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
D. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following sets of controls should allow an investigation if an attack is not blocked by preventive controls or detected by monitoring?

A. Logging and audit trail controls to enable forensic analysis
B. Security incident response lessons learned procedures
C. Security event alert triage done by analysts using a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
D. Transactional controls focused on fraud prevention

Answer: C

New Question
Determining outage costs caused by a disaster can BEST be measured by the

A. cost of redundant systems and backups.
B. cost to recover from an outage.
C. overall long-term impact of the outage.
D. revenue lost during the outage.

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is considered a secure coding practice?

A. Use concurrent access for shared variables and resources
B. Use checksums to verify the integrity of libraries
C. Use new code for common tasks
D. Use dynamic execution functions to pass user supplied data

Answer: B

New Question
As part of the security assessment plan, the security professional has been asked to use a negative testing strategy on a new website. Which of the following actions would be performed?

A. Use a web scanner to scan for vulnerabilities within the website.
B. Perform a code review to ensure that the database references are properly addressed.
C. Establish a secure connection to the web server to validate that only the approved ports are open.
D. Enter only numbers in the web form and verify that the website prompts the user to enter a valid input.

Answer: D

New Question
Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure that security objectives are aligned with organization goals?

A. Senior management
B. Information security department
C. Audit committee
D. All users

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following alarm systems is recommended to detect intrusions through windows in a high- noise, occupied environment?

A. Acoustic sensor
B. Motion sensor
C. Shock sensor
D. Photoelectric sensor

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST effective practice in managing user accounts when an employee is terminated?

A. Implement processes for automated removal of access for terminated employees.
B. Delete employee network and system IDs upon termination.
C. Manually remove terminated employee user-access to all systems and applications.
D. Disable terminated employee network ID to remove all access.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST important part of an awareness and training plan to prepare employees for emergency situations?

A. Having emergency contacts established for the general employee population to get information
B. Conducting business continuity and disaster recovery training for those who have a direct role in the recovery
C. Designing business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences
D. Publishing a corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plan on the corporate website

Answer: C

New Question
What is the process of removing sensitive data from a system or storage device with the intent that the data cannot be reconstructed by any known technique?

A. Purging
B. Encryption
C. Destruction
D. Clearing

Answer: A

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New Question
Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

A. Network availability
B. Node locations
C. Network bandwidth
D. Data integrity

Answer: C

New Question
The security accreditation task of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is completed at the end of which phase?

A. System acquisition and development
B. System operations and maintenance
C. System initiation
D. System implementation

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the BEST reason for the use of security metrics?

A. They ensure that the organization meets its security objectives.
B. They provide an appropriate framework for Information Technology (IT) governance.
C. They speed up the process of quantitative risk assessment.
D. They quantify the effectiveness of security processes.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is a benefit in implementing an enterprise Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

A. Password requirements are simplified.
B. Risk associated with orphan accounts is reduced.
C. Segregation of duties is automatically enforced.
D. Data confidentiality is increased.

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding state-based analysis as a functional software testing technique?

A. It is characterized by the stateless behavior of a process implemented in a function
B. Test inputs are obtained from the derived boundaries of the given functional specifications
C. An entire partition can be covered by considering only one representative value from that partition
D. It is useful for testing communications protocols and graphical user interfaces

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following are important criteria when designing procedures and acceptance criteria for acquired software?

A. Code quality, security, and origin
B. Architecture, hardware, and firmware
C. Data quality, provenance, and scaling
D. Distributed, agile, and bench testing

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST when purchasing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software?

A. undergo a security assessment as part of authorization process
B. establish a risk management strategy
C. harden the hosting server, and perform hosting and application vulnerability scans
D. establish policies and procedures on system and services acquisition

Answer: D

New Question
An organization has outsourced its financial transaction processing to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) who will provide them with Software as a Service (SaaS). If there was a data breach who is responsible for monetary losses?

A. The Data Protection Authority (DPA)
B. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)
C. The application developers
D. The data owner

Answer: B

New Question
What is the PRIMARY role of a scrum master in agile development?

A. To choose the primary development language
B. To choose the integrated development environment
C. To match the software requirements to the delivery plan
D. To project manage the software delivery

Answer: D

New Question
What capability would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control?

A. Password encryption
B. File encryption
C. Source library control
D. File authentication

Answer: A

New Question
An organization plan on purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support its business model.
Which unique consideration should be made part of the contractual agreement potential long-term risks associated with creating this dependency?

A. A source code escrow clause
B. Right to request an independent review of the software source code
C. Due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements
D. Access to the technical documentation

Answer: B

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New Question
When developing solutions for mobile devices, in which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) should technical limitations related to devices be specified?

A. Implementation
B. Initiation
C. Review
D. Development

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST important security goal when performing application interface testing?

A. Confirm that all platforms are supported and function properly
B. Evaluate whether systems or components pass data and control correctly to one another
C. Verify compatibility of software, hardware, and network connections
D. Examine error conditions related to external interfaces to prevent application details leakage

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST common method of memory protection?

A. Compartmentalization
B. Segmentation
C. Error correction
D. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging

Answer: B

New Question
Attack trees are MOST useful for which of the following?

A. Determining system security scopes
B. Generating attack libraries
C. Enumerating threats
D. Evaluating Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following techniques is known to be effective in spotting resource exhaustion problems, especially with resources such as processes, memory, and connections?

A. Automated dynamic analysis
B. Automated static analysis
C. Manual code review
D. Fuzzing

Answer: A

New Question
Which one of the following is an advantage of an effective release control strategy form a configuration control standpoint?

A. Ensures that a trace for all deliverables is maintained and auditable
B. Enforces backward compatibility between releases
C. Ensures that there is no loss of functionality between releases
D. Allows for future enhancements to existing features

Answer: C

New Question
The design review for an application has been completed and is ready for release. What technique should an organization use to assure application integrity?

A. Application authentication
B. Input validation
C. Digital signing
D. Device encryption

Answer: C

New Question
When implementing a secure wireless network, which of the following supports authentication and authorization for individual client endpoints?

A. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Pre-Shared Key (PSK)
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) Enterprise
D. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is a security feature of Global Systems for Mobile Communications (GSM)?

A. It uses a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) for authentication.
B. It uses encrypting techniques for all communications.
C. The radio spectrum is divided with multiple frequency carriers.
D. The signal is difficult to read as it provides end-to-end encryption.

Answer: A

New Question
Copyright provides protection for which of the following?

A. Ideas expressed in literary works
B. A particular expression of an idea
C. New and non-obvious inventions
D. Discoveries of natural phenomena

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks?

A. Data compression
B. Data classification
C. Data warehousing
D. Data validation

Answer: D


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New Question
An organization allows ping traffic into and out of their network. An attacker has installed a program on the network that uses the payload portion of the ping packet to move data into and out of the network. What type of attack has the organization experienced?

A. Data leakage
B. Unfiltered channel
C. Data emanation
D. Covert channel

Answer: D

New Question
The PRIMARY characteristic of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is that it

A. exploits weak authentication to penetrate networks.
B. can be detected with signature analysis.
C. looks like normal network activity.
D. is commonly confused with viruses or worms.

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following BEST mitigates a replay attack against a system using identity federation and Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) implementation?

A. Two-factor authentication
B. Digital certificates and hardware tokens
C. Timed sessions and Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
D. Passwords with alpha-numeric and special characters

Answer: C

New Question
A thorough review of an organization's audit logs finds that a disgruntled network administrator has intercepted emails meant for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and changed them before forwarding them to their intended recipient. What type of attack has MOST likely occurred?

A. Spoofing
B. Eavesdropping
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Denial of service

Answer: C

New Question
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions.
Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles.
Which of the following will MOST likely allow the organization to keep risk at an acceptable level?

A. Increasing the amount of audits performed by third parties
B. Removing privileged accounts from operational staff
C. Assigning privileged functions to appropriate staff
D. Separating the security function into distinct roles

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?

A. It drives audit processes.
B. It supports risk assessment.
C. It reduces asset vulnerabilities.
D. It minimizes system logging requirements.

Answer: B

New Question
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider's facility.
This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer- based applications used by the organization.
The third party needs to have?

A. processes that are identical to that of the organization doing the outsourcing.
B. access to the original personnel that were on staff at the organization.
C. the ability to maintain all of the applications in languages they are familiar with.
D. access to the skill sets consistent with the programming languages used by the organization.

Answer: D

New Question
During a fingerprint verification process, which of the following is used to verify identity and authentication?

A. A pressure value is compared with a stored template
B. Sets of digits are matched with stored values
C. A hash table is matched to a database of stored value
D. A template of minutiae is compared with a stored template

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following prevents improper aggregation of privileges in Role Based Access Control (RBAC)?

A. Hierarchical inheritance
B. Dynamic separation of duties
C. The Clark-Wilson security model
D. The Bell-LaPadula security model

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following could elicit a Denial of Service (DoS) attack against a credential management system?

A. Delayed revocation or destruction of credentials
B. Modification of Certificate Revocation List
C. Unauthorized renewal or re-issuance
D. Token use after decommissioning

Answer: B

New Question
For privacy protected data, which of the following roles has the highest authority for establishing dissemination rules for the data?

A. Information Systems Security Officer
B. Data Owner
C. System Security Architect
D. Security Requirements Analyst

Answer: B

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New Question
Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) used in a non-climate controlled environment should

A. reduce the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
B. increase the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
C. automatically compensate for variance in background temperature.
D. detect objects of a specific temperature independent of the background temperature.

Answer: C

New Question
When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

A. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
B. After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed
C. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
D. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins

Answer: B

New Question
A vulnerability test on an Information System (IS) is conducted to

A. exploit security weaknesses in the IS.
B. measure system performance on systems with weak security controls.
C. evaluate the effectiveness of security controls.
D. prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) planning.

Answer: C

New Question
The type of authorized interactions a subject can have with an object is

A. control.
B. permission.
C. procedure.
D. protocol.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is a security limitation of File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?

A. Passive FTP is not compatible with web browsers.
B. Anonymous access is allowed.
C. FTP uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 20 and 21.
D. Authentication is not encrypted.

Answer: D

New Question
Which one of the following is a threat related to the use of web-based client side input validation?

A. Users would be able to alter the input after validation has occurred
B. The web server would not be able to validate the input after transmission
C. The client system could receive invalid input from the web server
D. The web server would not be able to receive invalid input from the client

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following is generally indicative of a replay attack when dealing with biometric authentication?

A. False Acceptance Rate (FAR) is greater than 1 in 100,000
B. False Rejection Rate (FRR) is greater than 5 in 100
C. Inadequately specified templates
D. Exact match

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

A. Time of data validation after disaster
B. Time of data restoration from backup after disaster
C. Time of application resumption after disaster
D. Time of application verification after disaster

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed?

A. To assist data owners in making future sensitivity and criticality determinations
B. To assure the software development team that all security issues have been addressed
C. To verify that security protection remains acceptable to the organizational security policy
D. To help the security team accept or reject new systems for implementation and production

Answer: C

New Question
An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it

A. makes key management and distribution easier.
B. protects data from start to finish through the entire network.
C. improves the efficiency of the transmission.
D. encrypts all information, including headers and routing information.

Answer: D

New Question
From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?

A. Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.
B. Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.
C. Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.
D. Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.

Answer: D

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New Question
How does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in transport mode affect the Internet Protocol (IP)?

A. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP header, but not the IP payload
B. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP payload, but not the IP header
C. Authenticates the IP payload and selected portions of the IP header
D. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the complete IP packet

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?

A. Implement full-disk encryption
B. Enable multifactor authentication
C. Deploy file integrity checkers
D. Disable use of portable devices

Answer: D

New Question
What is the PRIMARY advantage of using automated application security testing tools?

A. The application can be protected in the production environment.
B. Large amounts of code can be tested using fewer resources.
C. The application will fail less when tested using these tools.
D. Detailed testing of code functions can be performed.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following MUST be done when promoting a security awareness program to senior management?

A. Show the need for security; identify the message and the audience
B. Ensure that the security presentation is designed to be all-inclusive
C. Notify them that their compliance is mandatory
D. Explain how hackers have enhanced information security

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following is the MOST crucial for a successful audit plan?

A. Defining the scope of the audit to be performed
B. Identifying the security controls to be implemented
C. Working with the system owner on new controls
D. Acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant

Answer: A

New Question
Changes to a Trusted Computing Base (TCB) system that could impact the security posture of that system and trigger a recertification activity are documented in the

A. security impact analysis.
B. structured code review.
C. routine self assessment.
D. cost benefit analysis.

Answer: A

New Question
In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, which BEST describes a functional drill?

A. A full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions
B. A specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions
C. A functional evacuation of personnel
D. An activation of the backup site

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?

A. Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.
B. Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.
C. The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.
D. Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the BIGGEST weakness when using native Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) for authentication?

A. Authorizations are not included in the server response
B. Unsalted hashes are passed over the network
C. The authentication session can be replayed
D. Passwords are passed in cleartext

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?

A. Retina scan and a palm print
B. Fingerprint and a smart card
C. Magnetic stripe card and an ID badge
D. Password and Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart (CAPTCHA)

Answer: B

New Question
All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring
B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes
C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption
D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

Answer: B

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New Question
Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A. Examine the device for physical tampering
B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations
C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive
D. Change access codes

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

A. Network redundancies are not implemented
B. Security awareness training is not completed
C. Backup tapes are generated unencrypted
D. Users have administrative privileges

Answer: C

New Question
What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?

A. Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel
B. Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present
C. Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements
D. Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan

Answer: C

New Question
A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

A. Application
B. Storage
C. Power
D. Network

Answer: C

New Question
When assessing an organization's security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

A. Only when assets are clearly defined
B. Only when standards are defined
C. Only when controls are put in place
D. Only procedures are defined

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

A. Install mantraps at the building entrances
B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic
C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public
D. Hire a guard to protect the public area

Answer: D

New Question
An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?

A. Development, testing, and deployment
B. Prevention, detection, and remediation
C. People, technology, and operations
D. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring

Answer: C

New Question
Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?

A. Owner's ability to realize financial gain
B. Owner's ability to maintain copyright
C. Right of the owner to enjoy their creation
D. Right of the owner to control delivery method

Answer: D

New Question
A control to protect from a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attach has been determined to stop 50% of attacks, and additionally reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. What is the residual risk?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following BEST describes a chosen plaintext attack?

A. The cryptanalyst can generate ciphertext from arbitrary text.
B. The cryptanalyst examines the communication being sent back and forth.
C. The cryptanalyst can choose the key and algorithm to mount the attack.
D. The cryptanalyst is presented with the ciphertext from which the original message is determined.

Answer: A

New Question
For network based evidence, which of the following contains traffic details of all network sessions in order to detect anomalies?

A. Alert data
B. User data
C. Content data
D. Statistical data

Answer: D

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New Question
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular vulnerability scanning of an organization network?

A. Provide vulnerability reports to management.
B. Validate vulnerability remediation activities.
C. Prevent attackers from discovering vulnerabilities.
D. Remediate known vulnerabilities.

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following would BEST describe the role directly responsible for data within an organization?

A. Data custodian
B. Information owner
C. Database administrator
D. Quality control

Answer: A

New Question
The restoration priorities of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) are based on which of the following documents?

A. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B. Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
D. Crisis management plan

Answer: B

New Question
The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented

A. interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.
B. standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.
C. system weakness for remediation.
D. security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.

Answer: D

New Question
A security architect plans to reference a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model for implementation. This indicates that which of the following properties are being prioritized?

A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Accessibility

Answer: C

New Question
A vulnerability in which of the following components would be MOST difficult to detect?

A. Kernel
B. Shared libraries
C. Hardware
D. System application

Answer: A

New Question
In The Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which layer is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network?

A. Physical Layer
B. Application Layer
C. Data-Link Layer
D. Network Layer

Answer: A

New Question
What is the term commonly used to refer to a technique of authentication one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source?

A. Smurfing
B. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack
C. Session redirect
D. Spoofing

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data stores as well as assignment of ownership responsibilities?

A. Security governance
B. Risk management
C. Security portfolio management
D. Risk assessment

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following mandates the amount and complexity of security controls applied to a security risk?

A. Security vulnerabilities
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk mitigation
D. Security staff

Answer: C

New Question
When determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability, which of the following is MOST important?

A. Countermeasure effectiveness
B. Type of potential loss
C. Incident likelihood
D. Information ownership

Answer: C

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New Question
A security professional determines that a number of outsourcing contracts inherited from a previous merger do not adhere to the current security requirements. Which of the following BEST minimizes the risk of this happening again?

A. Define additional security controls directly after the merger
B. Include a procurement officer in the merger team
C. Verify all contracts before a merger occurs
D. Assign a compliancy officer to review the merger conditions

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following is a direct monetary cost of a security incident?

A. Morale
B. Reputation
C. Equipment
D. Information

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following would MINIMIZE the ability of an attacker to exploit a buffer overflow?

A. Memory review
B. Code review
C. Message division
D. Buffer division

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?

A. parameterized database queries
B. whitelist input values
C. synchronized session tokens
D. use strong ciphers

Answer: C

New Question
What is the MOST effective method for gaining unauthorized access to a file protected with a long complex password?

A. Brute force attack
B. Frequency analysis
C. Social engineering
D. Dictionary attack

Answer: C

New Question
Which one of the following describes granularity?

A. Maximum number of entries available in an Access Control List (ACL)
B. Fineness to which a trusted system can authenticate users
C. Number of violations divided by the number of total accesses
D. Fineness to which an access control system can be adjusted

Answer: D

New Question
Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

A. Network availability
B. Data integrity
C. Network bandwidth
D. Node locations

Answer: C

New Question
What is the MOST critical factor to achieve the goals of a security program?

A. Capabilities of security resources
B. Executive management support
C. Effectiveness of security management
D. Budget approved for security resources

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is an attacker MOST likely to target to gain privileged access to a system?

A. Programs that write to system resources
B. Programs that write to user directories
C. Log files containing sensitive information
D. Log files containing system calls

Answer: A

New Question
Transport Layer Security (TLS) provides which of the following capabilities for a remote access server?

A. Transport layer handshake compression
B. Application layer negotiation
C. Peer identity authentication
D. Digital certificate revocation

Answer: C

New Question
A chemical plan wants to upgrade the Industrial Control System (ICS) to transmit data using Ethernet instead of RS422. The project manager wants to simplify administration and maintenance by utilizing the office network infrastructure and staff to implement this upgrade. Which of the following is the GREATEST impact on security for the network?

A. The network administrators have no knowledge of ICS
B. The ICS is now accessible from the office network
C. The ICS does not support the office password policy
D. RS422 is more reliable than Ethernet

Answer: B

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New Question
What does a Synchronous (SYN) flood attack do?

A. Forces Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections into a reset state
B. Establishes many new Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections
C. Empties the queue of pending Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) requests
D. Exceeds the limits for new Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing?

A. Cryptographic signature
B. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering
C. Spam filtering
D. Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup

Answer: A

New Question
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack on a syslog server exploits weakness in which of the following protocols?

A. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
D. Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

Answer: B

New Question
In a High Availability (HA) environment, what is the PRIMARY goal of working with a virtual router address as the gateway to a network?

A. The second of two routers can periodically check in to make sure that the first router is operational.
B. The second of two routers can better absorb a Denial of Service (DoS) attack knowing the first router is present.
C. The first of two routers fails and is reinstalled, while the second handles the traffic flawlessly.
D. The first of two routers can better handle specific traffic, while the second handles the rest of the traffic seamlessly.

Answer: C

New Question
How does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in transport mode affect in the Internet Protocol (IP)?

A. Authenticates the IP payload and selected portions of the IP header
B. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the complete IP packet
C. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP header, but not the IP payload
D. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP payload, but not the IP header

Answer: D

New Question
A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack targeting its web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat?

A. Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers
B. Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic
C. Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection
D. Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Answer: D

New Question
The MAIN use of Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is to tunnel data

A. through a firewall at the Session layer
B. through a firewall at the Transport layer
C. in the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
D. in the Payload Compression Protocol (PCP)

Answer: C

New Question
What protocol is often used between gateway hosts on the Internet?

A. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

A. The department should report to the business owner
B. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
C. Individual accountability should be ensured
D. All members should be trained on their responsibilities

Answer: B

New Question
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

A. Assigned security label
B. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
C. Minimum query size
D. Passage of time

Answer: D

New Question
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

Answer: C

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New Question
An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests. Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B. Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
C. Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer: B

New Question
When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

A. The process will require too many resources
B. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software
C. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data
D. The process will be perceived as having value

Answer: A

New Question
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

A. system security managers
B. business managers
C. Information Technology (IT) managers
D. end users

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

A. Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations
B. Understand the value of the information assets
C. Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management
D. Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

A. Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
B. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication
C. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection
D. Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

Answer: C

New Question
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.
Which of the following BEST describes the access control methodology used?

A. Least privilege
B. Lattice Based Access Control (LBAC)
C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Lightweight Directory Access Control (LDAP)

Answer: C

New Question
Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?

A. System and data resources are properly identified
B. Access violations are logged and audited
C. Data file references are identified and linked
D. System security controls are fully integrated

Answer: A

New Question
Which of the following describes the BEST configuration management practice?

A. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to a separate back-up system and hashed to detect tampering.
B. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to an air-gapped system and hashed to detect tampering.
C. The firewall rules are backed up to an air-gapped system.
D. A baseline configuration is created and maintained for all relevant systems.

Answer: D

New Question
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access.
This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging.
The organization's Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following methods is the MOST effective way of removing the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from the computer?

A. Run software uninstall
B. Re-image the computer
C. Find and remove all installation files
D. Delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache

Answer: B

New Question
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern when using an Internet browser to access a cloud-based service?

A. Insecure implementation of Application Programming Interfaces (API)
B. Improper use and storage of management keys
C. Misconfiguration of infrastructure allowing for unauthorized access
D. Vulnerabilities within protocols that can expose confidential data

Answer: D

New Question
The application of which of the following standards would BEST reduce the potential for data breaches?

A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 20121
C. ISO 26000
D. ISO 27001

Answer: D

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